Dear Sirs, I now understand that Everton will receive less than 32,000 tickets for the up coming FA Cup Semi Final at Wembley. Am I to assume that Man Utd will receive the same allocation and if not, why not? Assuming that the total allocation to both clubs is 64,000, who gets the other 26,000 if the capacity is 90,000 and why are they not allocated to fans of the clubs involved? Can you please come back to me thanks. Paul Cullen
Thank you for your e-mail.
For this years semi-finals, each team will receive approx 32,000 tickets, the FA football family approx 7000 and all remaining seats are located in Club Wembley.
Thank you for your reply.
However you are simply listing the allocation and either deliberately ignoring my question or you misunderstand it.
Why do the 2 clubs only receive 64,000 tickets? Why should the so called "FA family and Club Wembley" receive 26,000 tickets?
Do you as an organisation not understand that these tickets will largely appear on the black market at hugely inflated prices and that as usual you fail the genuine fans of both clubs? In addition to this do you not realise by doing so you increase the likelehood of mixed areas of fans and thus increase the chances of trouble at the match itself? No doubt if trouble should occur you will wring your hands and claim disgust while ignoring your own contribution to it!
Only once in my living memory have the FA issued a proper allocation to both clubs for such a game, this was the Liverpool versus Everton Cup Final in 1989 when you were shamed into doing so by the media coverage of the Hillsborough disaster.
True to form you quietly reverted the allocations to the usual inadequate levels the following year and you continue to so. The breathtaking arrogance you continue to display towards football fans today is not only an insult to all of us but also to the 96 people who died on that day.
I would welcome a proper response to my query
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